Someone  used the Hebrew syntax since he wanted to rectify his wrong understanding about the Greek syntax.

שְׁמָעֵנוּ אֲדֹנִי, נְשִׂיא אֱלֹהִים אַתָּה בְּתוֹכֵנוּ–בְּמִבְחַר קְבָרֵינוּ, קְבֹר אֶת-מֵתֶךָ; אִישׁ מִמֶּנּוּ, אֶת-קִבְרוֹ לֹא-יִכְלֶה מִמְּךָ מִקְּבֹר מֵתֶךָ.
(Genesis 23:6, Hebrew Bible)

He is trying to confuse the issue by appealing to Hebrew syntax as a way to refute a point of Greek syntax.

Elohim is not an adjective in Genesis 23:6.

Genesis is an ancient narrative, in Hebrew, written in the sixth or fifth century BCE, in formal courtly language: “a prince of God.” As opposed to ancient narrative, John (half a millennium later) is making a solemn claim, in Greek, that Jesus is God and co-eternal with God. The Hebrew and the Greek cannot be compared on equal terms. The Hittites (polytheists!) are not thinking John’s “God.”

John 1:1 is Greek, while Genesis 23:6 is Hebrew.

The rules of syntax are somewhat different.Greek syntax works different than Hebrew syntax.

1. Greek and Hebrew are in two different families of languages and their grammars do not match.

2. Hebrew has no tenses, just “aspects.” Greek does.

3. Hebrew has no neuter gender. Greek does.

4. Hebrew has construct chains. Greek does not but uses more elaborate case system.

5. New Testament Greek is a mix of good Greek style and Hebraisms (Greek words, but imitating Hebrew style).

6. Also, the range of meaning of words of the two languages do not match: DBR = LOGOS, but compare the extended meanings of the two words do not match.

The question about the syntax in John 1:1 is Greek, so the only kind of syntactical parallels that will count must be in Greek.

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