Why Do Many Jews Reject Jesus as the Messiah?
The Jews in Jesus’ time studied Old Testament Scriptures. They knew the Messiah was supposed to be a political leader who will expel their enemies, re-establish the Jewish nation, and bring peace as well as prosperity to God’s chosen people. That is not the reason Jesus returned. Although prophecies of political peace are yet to be fulfilled in the millennial realm, Jesus’ purpose on earth is to establish peace between people and God. It could be appalling that peace was to be offered to the Gentiles as well.
That is why Christians are blessed since God took pity on us and we worship Jesus who became man and chose to become our servant. People during his time could not accept the fact He was the son of a carpenter.
Jesus along with his teachings was unsuited to the Jews’ idea of their Messiah. Jesus taught a strict form of Judaism, enforced strict divorce laws and emphasized He did not come to destroy the law. Pious Jews found some of his teachings difficult to accept. Jews rejected Jesus as Messiah since it was totally incredible to them God came down as a man and lived with them. It was not possible for God to have physical form. It was absolute sacrilege for any man to claim He was God. Verses in the Old Testament used by Christians to prove Jesus was God was not believed by Jews.
If we look at the LXX version of Deuteronomy 32:43, this is what we can read:
“Rejoice, ye heavens, with him, and LET ALL THE ANGELS OF GOD WORSHIP HIM; rejoice ye Gentiles, with his people, and let all the sons of God strengthen themselves in him; for he will avenge the blood of his sons, and he will render vengeance, and recompense justice to his enemies, and will reward them that hate him; and the Lord shall purge the land of his people.”(Deuteronomy 32:43, English Translation of LXX/Septuagint)
In the Greek text, we can see this in the Septuagint and we can also read Hebrews 1:6 in the Greek text.
We can read in the English Translation of LXX, “LET ALL THE ANGELS OF GOD WORSHIP HIM.”
This clearly refers to Jesus Christ in Hebrews 1:6:
“And when He again brings the firstborn into the world, He says, “AND LET ALL THE ANGELS OF GOD WORSHIP HIM.”
If Jesus Christ was just a man and not God, why does the Father order the Angels to worship Him?
It will appear the Father contradicts (Exodus 20:3) not to have other gods.
We cannot read this line in the Masoretic Text of the Jews.
Look at the Masoretic Text version of Deuteronomy 32:43:
“Sing out, you nations, about his people! For he will avenge the blood of his servants. He will render vengeance to his adversaries and make atonement for the land of his people.” (Deuteronomy 32:43, Complete Jewish Bible)
This is why we stand for LXX or Septuagint used by Jesus and His disciples.
Aside from this, there is the initial Septuagint/LXX instead of the Masoretic Text. The earliest MT came from Codex Leningradensis (1008 CE) and Aleppo Codex (935 CE) although LXX was translated from Hebrew in the Third Century BCE (ca. 280 BCE).
Jesus is not being referred to in Isaiah 7:14, it was Hezekiah?
According to the Jewish interpretation, this was only invented by an ancient author of the Gospel who was a Christian of Jewish background.
The Jews said Matthew 1:23 is merely an invention since the right Hebrew word should be “betulah” and not “almah”for “Virgin”.
The Greek word “parthenos” can be read in Matthew 1:23 which means “Virgin” and can be read in the LXX/Septuagint version of Isaiah 7:14.
διὰ τοῦτο δώσει Κύριος αὐτὸς ὑμῖν σημεῖον· ἰδοὺ ἡ παρθένος ἐν γαστρὶ ἕξει, καὶ τέξεται υἱόν, καὶ καλέσεις τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ ᾿Εμμανουήλ· (Isaiah 7:14, LXX)
How can Christians invent this since even before early Christians came, the Septuagint/LXX and “Parthenos” was used for the word, virgin?
This is what is written in Page 185 of the Invitation to the Septuagint by Karen H. Jobes.
An additional consideration, however brings the LXX and the NT even closer together, namely, the indisputable fact that the NT writers knew and used the OT in its Greek form.
This is regarding arguments of Jewish scholars that “betulah” and not “almah” should be used for Virgin
The root meaning of “almah” is “maiden” or “young woman”. It is not as accurate as defined in Genesis 24:16 (in reference to Rebekah) about a young woman who never had sexual relations. Yet, is it also true in seven times that almah appeared in the singular throughout Hebrew scriptures, the word never referred to a maiden who lost her virginity but only to one who was unmarried and pure as in Genesis 24:23.
Here is my analysis:
(Genesis 24:16, Hebrew Bible)
The Hebrew Text of Genesis 24:16 reads:
Vehanaara tovat mareh meod betoola veeesh lo yedaah vatered haiana vatmale chada vataal.
Genesis 24:16 describes the young and pre-married רִבְקָה (Ribqah) with three Hebrew words:
The girl (נַעֲרָה) was very pretty and certified virgin (בְּתוּלָה). No man ever knew her and she went down to the well to fill her water jar.
The maiden [עַלְמָה] comes out to draw (water) (v.43a)
There are three words for רִבְקָה (Ribqah):
*girl (נַעֲרָה/naarah) – relates to gender
*virgin (בְּתוּלָה/betulah) – relates to sexual experience
*maiden/young woman (עַלְמָה/almah) – relates to marriage status
In describing רִבְקָה it is theoretically identical: A בְּתוּלָה is a נַעֲרָה is an עַלְמָה.
Hezekiah was referred to in the Prophecy of Isaiah 9:6 as the child who was born and it was not Jesus?
The failure of Hezekiah in his debacle with the Babylonian king Merodach-Baldan (Isa 39:1-8) would have disqualified Hezekiah from ever living up to the prophetic expectations of the ideal Davidic king described by Isaiah in 9:1-7.
If Isaiah had intended that Hezekiah was the king in view in 9:5-6, it is remarkable that he did not provide his birth name: “Hezekiah.” The absence of the birth name of the ideal future Davidic king is a patent allusion to the fact that Isaiah himself did not know the precise identity of this future ideal Davidic king; therefore, he was not Hezekiah.
The description of the birth and ascension of the ideal Davidic king in 9:1-7 could not have been Hezekiah, since Isaiah describes the reign of this ideal king as something that would begin in the future.
Is Jesus a Jew? (John 4:9) Why did He not follow the teachings of Jewish leaders (John 5:18) Is it not true that Hebrews 13:17 said we should be governed by leaders?
Jesus did not disobey the rule.
He even said, “Do not think that I have come to abolish the law or the prophets. I have come not to abolish but to fulfill.”(Matthew 5:17)
That is why He taught the 10 Commandments when he was still here over 2,000 years ago (Matthew 19:16-19).
This is what the Jews forbade Jesus in John 5:10, “It is the Sabbath, and you are not permitted to carry your mat,”
Talmud has two components. These are the Mishnah (Hebrew: משנה, c. 200 CE), which is published information about Rabbinic Judaism’s Oral Torah (Talmud is also known as “instruction” in Hebrew); and the Gemara (c. 500 CE) is a clarification of the Mishnah and relevant writings that deals with other subjects and explains the Hebrew Bible.
“He who transports an object from one domain to another” (The Mishnah: A New Translation 7:2 sec. L39)
The tradition is not written in Torah but only their tradition.
The early written oral tradition is called the Mishnah.
The Apostle Paul warned about Jewish myths and commandments that contradicted God’s commandments.
“That testimony is true. For this reason rebuke them sharply, so that they may become sound in the faith, not paying attention to Jewish myths or to commandments of those who reject the truth.”(Titus 1:13-14, NRSV)